Neoplasia: cancer-associated thrombosis: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Pathology · Neoplasia: cancer-associated thrombosis

Sample item

A 63-year-old man with weight loss and epigastric pain has had repeated episodes of migratory superficial thrombophlebitis without other risk factors. CT shows a mass in the body of the pancreas. What is this phenomenon called?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Trousseau syndrome

Migratory thrombophlebitis in association with visceral cancer, especially pancreatic adenocarcinoma, is Trousseau syndrome. Mucin and tissue factor released by tumour cells cause a hypercoagulable state, which can also produce nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis.

Option by option

  • A. Budd-Chiari syndrome

    Budd-Chiari syndrome is hepatic vein thrombosis presenting with ascites and hepatomegaly.

  • B. Mondor disease

    Mondor disease is superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast and chest wall veins, usually after trauma or surgery.

  • C. Paget-Schroetter syndrome

    Paget-Schroetter syndrome is effort thrombosis of the axillary or subclavian vein.

  • D. Trousseau syndrome (correct)

    Migratory thrombophlebitis with a visceral cancer is Trousseau syndrome.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Pathology questions

Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is D, Trousseau syndrome. Migratory thrombophlebitis in association with visceral cancer, especially pancreatic adenocarcinoma, is Trousseau syndrome.

Why is "Budd-Chiari syndrome" not the answer?

Budd-Chiari syndrome is hepatic vein thrombosis presenting with ascites and hepatomegaly.

Why is "Mondor disease" not the answer?

Mondor disease is superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast and chest wall veins, usually after trauma or surgery.

Why is "Paget-Schroetter syndrome" not the answer?

Paget-Schroetter syndrome is effort thrombosis of the axillary or subclavian vein.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neoplasia: cancer-associated thrombosis in Pathology. Mucin and tissue factor released by tumour cells cause a hypercoagulable state, which can also produce nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neoplasia: cancer-associated thrombosis?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.