Neoplasia: AIDS-associated tumours: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pathology · Neoplasia: AIDS-associated tumours

Sample item

A 34-year-old man with HIV infection and a CD4 count of 80 per microlitre has violaceous plaques on both legs. Biopsy shows spindle cells forming slit-like vascular spaces with extravasated red blood cells. Which virus is the cause?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Human herpesvirus 8

Kaposi sarcoma is a vascular neoplasm caused by HHV-8 (KSHV), and the latency-associated nuclear antigen LANA can be shown by immunohistochemistry. It is an AIDS-defining illness, and lesions often regress after antiretroviral therapy restores immunity.

Option by option

  • A. Human papillomavirus 16

    HPV 16 causes anogenital and oropharyngeal squamous carcinomas.

  • B. Human herpesvirus 8 (correct)

    HHV-8 infection is required for Kaposi sarcoma.

  • C. HTLV-1

    HTLV-1 causes adult T-cell leukaemia or lymphoma and tropical spastic paraparesis.

  • D. Epstein-Barr virus

    EBV causes Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and some Hodgkin lymphomas.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Pathology questions

Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is B, Human herpesvirus 8. Kaposi sarcoma is a vascular neoplasm caused by HHV-8 (KSHV), and the latency-associated nuclear antigen LANA can be shown by immunohistochemistry.

Why is "Human papillomavirus 16" not the answer?

HPV 16 causes anogenital and oropharyngeal squamous carcinomas.

Why is "HTLV-1" not the answer?

HTLV-1 causes adult T-cell leukaemia or lymphoma and tropical spastic paraparesis.

Why is "Epstein-Barr virus" not the answer?

EBV causes Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and some Hodgkin lymphomas.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neoplasia: AIDS-associated tumours in Pathology. It is an AIDS-defining illness, and lesions often regress after antiretroviral therapy restores immunity.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neoplasia: AIDS-associated tumours?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.