Gastroenterology and hepatology: glucagonoma: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Medicine · Gastroenterology and hepatology: glucagonoma

Sample item

A 58-year-old woman has weight loss, new mild diabetes, anaemia and a painful rash in the groin and perineum with migrating erythematous patches, central blistering and crusting. CT shows a pancreatic tail mass. Which tumour is most likely?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Glucagonoma

Glucagonoma causes necrolytic migratory erythema, mild diabetes, weight loss, normocytic anaemia and venous thrombosis. Plasma glucagon is markedly raised. Treatment is surgery, with octreotide and zinc or amino acid supplementation for symptoms.

Option by option

  • A. Glucagonoma (correct)

    Correct. A migratory necrolytic rash with diabetes and a pancreatic mass is the classic picture.

  • B. Somatostatinoma

    Somatostatinoma causes diabetes, gallstones and steatorrhoea, without a migratory rash.

  • C. Gastrinoma

    Gastrinoma presents with severe, recurrent peptic ulcers and diarrhoea.

  • D. Insulinoma

    Insulinoma presents with fasting hypoglycaemia, not diabetes.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Medicine questions

Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is A, Glucagonoma. Glucagonoma causes necrolytic migratory erythema, mild diabetes, weight loss, normocytic anaemia and venous thrombosis.

Why is "Somatostatinoma" not the answer?

Somatostatinoma causes diabetes, gallstones and steatorrhoea, without a migratory rash.

Why is "Gastrinoma" not the answer?

Gastrinoma presents with severe, recurrent peptic ulcers and diarrhoea.

Why is "Insulinoma" not the answer?

Insulinoma presents with fasting hypoglycaemia, not diabetes.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gastroenterology and hepatology: glucagonoma in General Medicine. Plasma glucagon is markedly raised. Treatment is surgery, with octreotide and zinc or amino acid supplementation for symptoms.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gastroenterology and hepatology: glucagonoma?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.