Neuro-ophthalmology and pupils: management of mucormycosis: practice question

A Ophthalmology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Ophthalmology · Neuro-ophthalmology and pupils: management of mucormycosis

Sample item

A diabetic patient with ketoacidosis has been diagnosed with rhino-orbital mucormycosis on nasal biopsy. Which management is most appropriate?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Debridement with liposomal amphotericin B

Management of mucormycosis has three parts: correction of the metabolic problem such as ketoacidosis, early aggressive surgical debridement of necrotic tissue, and intravenous liposomal amphotericin B. Steroids are harmful.

Option by option

  • A. Oral fluconazole as sole therapy

    Fluconazole has no activity against Mucorales.

  • B. High-dose IV methylprednisolone infusion

    High-dose corticosteroid worsens hyperglycaemia and the infection.

  • C. IV ceftriaxone as sole therapy

    Antibacterials do not treat a fungal infection.

  • D. Debridement with liposomal amphotericin B (correct)

    Correct. Debridement with liposomal amphotericin B and glycaemic control are the core treatment.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Ophthalmology questions

Questions about this Ophthalmology question

What is the answer to this Ophthalmology question?

The best answer is D, Debridement with liposomal amphotericin B. Management of mucormycosis has three parts: correction of the metabolic problem such as ketoacidosis, early aggressive surgical debridement of necrotic tissue, and intravenous liposomal amphotericin B.

Why is "Oral fluconazole as sole therapy" not the answer?

Fluconazole has no activity against Mucorales.

Why is "High-dose IV methylprednisolone infusion" not the answer?

High-dose corticosteroid worsens hyperglycaemia and the infection.

Why is "IV ceftriaxone as sole therapy" not the answer?

Antibacterials do not treat a fungal infection.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuro-ophthalmology and pupils: management of mucormycosis in Ophthalmology. Steroids are harmful.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuro-ophthalmology and pupils: management of mucormycosis?

Group the red eye by what to examine and what the pupil does. Then use the flashcards and the other Ophthalmology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.