Peripheral nerve injuries: Parsonage-Turner syndrome: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Peripheral nerve injuries: Parsonage-Turner syndrome

Sample item

A 30-year-old man develops sudden severe shoulder pain without injury. The pain eases over two weeks and is followed by weakness and wasting of the shoulder girdle muscles. Cervical spine MRI is normal. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Neuralgic amyotrophy (Parsonage-Turner syndrome)

Neuralgic amyotrophy is an idiopathic, probably immune-mediated brachial plexitis. Severe pain lasting days to weeks is followed by patchy weakness and atrophy, often affecting the suprascapular, long thoracic or axillary nerves. Most patients recover over months to years with analgesia and physiotherapy.

Option by option

  • A. Complete rotator cuff tear

    A cuff tear causes weakness of abduction and external rotation, usually after a fall or in older patients, and the tear is visible on imaging.

  • B. Adhesive capsulitis

    Adhesive capsulitis causes global stiffness with preserved strength and no focal wasting.

  • C. C5-C6 disc prolapse

    A disc prolapse is shown on MRI and causes root-pattern pain and sensory changes.

  • D. Neuralgic amyotrophy (Parsonage-Turner syndrome) (correct)

    Correct. Abrupt severe pain that settles, then patchy paralysis with a normal cervical MRI, is typical.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, Neuralgic amyotrophy (Parsonage-Turner syndrome). Neuralgic amyotrophy is an idiopathic, probably immune-mediated brachial plexitis.

Why is "Complete rotator cuff tear" not the answer?

A cuff tear causes weakness of abduction and external rotation, usually after a fall or in older patients, and the tear is visible on imaging.

Why is "Adhesive capsulitis" not the answer?

Adhesive capsulitis causes global stiffness with preserved strength and no focal wasting.

Why is "C5-C6 disc prolapse" not the answer?

A disc prolapse is shown on MRI and causes root-pattern pain and sensory changes.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Peripheral nerve injuries: Parsonage-Turner syndrome in Orthopaedics. Severe pain lasting days to weeks is followed by patchy weakness and atrophy, often affecting the suprascapular, long thoracic or axillary nerves. Most patients recover over months to years with analgesia and physiotherapy.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Peripheral nerve injuries: Parsonage-Turner syndrome?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.