Musculoskeletal imaging: transient osteoporosis of the hip: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Radiology · Musculoskeletal imaging: transient osteoporosis of the hip

Sample item

A 40-year-old man has sudden hip pain and a limp without trauma. MRI shows diffuse marrow oedema of the femoral head and neck with no subchondral low-signal line. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Transient osteoporosis of the hip

Transient osteoporosis shows diffuse marrow oedema extending from the head into the neck and resolves over months without a focal lesion. Avascular necrosis shows a serpiginous subchondral line, the double-line sign. A stress fracture shows a linear low-signal line, and septic arthritis shows an effusion with synovitis.

Option by option

  • A. Septic arthritis

    Septic arthritis has fever, a large effusion and synovitis.

  • B. Transient osteoporosis of the hip (correct)

    Correct. Diffuse marrow oedema without a focal lesion fits transient osteoporosis.

  • C. Femoral neck stress fracture

    A stress fracture shows a distinct linear fracture line within the oedema.

  • D. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

    Avascular necrosis shows a serpiginous band and later subchondral collapse.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Radiology questions

Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is B, Transient osteoporosis of the hip. Transient osteoporosis shows diffuse marrow oedema extending from the head into the neck and resolves over months without a focal lesion.

Why is "Septic arthritis" not the answer?

Septic arthritis has fever, a large effusion and synovitis.

Why is "Femoral neck stress fracture" not the answer?

A stress fracture shows a distinct linear fracture line within the oedema.

Why is "Avascular necrosis of the femoral head" not the answer?

Avascular necrosis shows a serpiginous band and later subchondral collapse.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Musculoskeletal imaging: transient osteoporosis of the hip in Radiology. Avascular necrosis shows a serpiginous subchondral line, the double-line sign. A stress fracture shows a linear low-signal line, and septic arthritis shows an effusion with synovitis.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Musculoskeletal imaging: transient osteoporosis of the hip?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.