Musculoskeletal imaging: juvenile Tillaux fracture: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Radiology · Musculoskeletal imaging: juvenile Tillaux fracture

Sample item

A 14-year-old injures the ankle in external rotation. CT shows an avulsed fragment of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. What is this injury?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Juvenile Tillaux fracture

In adolescence the distal tibial physis closes from medial to lateral, so the anterolateral part is still open. External rotation pulls this segment off through the anterior tibiofibular ligament, producing a Salter-Harris III injury. A triplane fracture extends in three planes.

Option by option

  • A. Juvenile Tillaux fracture (correct)

    Correct. An avulsed anterolateral epiphysis in a closing physis is a Tillaux fracture.

  • B. Weber B fibular fracture

    A Weber B fracture is a spiral fibular fracture at the level of the syndesmosis.

  • C. Salter-Harris type I fracture

    Type I is a pure physeal separation without an epiphyseal fragment.

  • D. Triplane fracture

    A triplane fracture has sagittal, axial and coronal components.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Radiology questions

Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is A, Juvenile Tillaux fracture. In adolescence the distal tibial physis closes from medial to lateral, so the anterolateral part is still open.

Why is "Weber B fibular fracture" not the answer?

A Weber B fracture is a spiral fibular fracture at the level of the syndesmosis.

Why is "Salter-Harris type I fracture" not the answer?

Type I is a pure physeal separation without an epiphyseal fragment.

Why is "Triplane fracture" not the answer?

A triplane fracture has sagittal, axial and coronal components.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Musculoskeletal imaging: juvenile Tillaux fracture in Radiology. External rotation pulls this segment off through the anterior tibiofibular ligament, producing a Salter-Harris III injury. A triplane fracture extends in three planes.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Musculoskeletal imaging: juvenile Tillaux fracture?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.