STI: recurrent versus primary genital herpes: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · STI: recurrent versus primary genital herpes

Sample item

How does a recurrent episode of genital herpes differ from the first primary episode?

AMore extensive lesions with fever and bilateral lymphadenopathyBLesions that last longer, with viral shedding for several weeksCPainless indurated ulcers with persistent lymph node enlargementDFewer lesions that heal faster, usually with a prodrome and no systemic symptoms

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Fewer lesions that heal faster, usually with a prodrome and no systemic symptoms

Recurrences are milder because antibody and cell-mediated immunity are present. Lesions are fewer, heal in about a week, are often preceded by itching or tingling, and systemic features are absent.

Option by option

A. More extensive lesions with fever and bilateral lymphadenopathy
Extensive lesions with fever and bilateral nodes describe the primary episode.
B. Lesions that last longer, with viral shedding for several weeks
Longer lesions with weeks of viral shedding describe a primary episode.
C. Painless indurated ulcers with persistent lymph node enlargement
Painless indurated ulcers describe syphilis, not herpes.
D. Fewer lesions that heal faster, usually with a prodrome and no systemic symptoms (correct)
Correct. Recurrences are milder, shorter and preceded by a prodrome.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is D, Fewer lesions that heal faster, usually with a prodrome and no systemic symptoms. Recurrences are milder because antibody and cell-mediated immunity are present.

Why is "More extensive lesions with fever and bilateral lymphadenopathy" not the answer?

Extensive lesions with fever and bilateral nodes describe the primary episode.

Why is "Lesions that last longer, with viral shedding for several weeks" not the answer?

Longer lesions with weeks of viral shedding describe a primary episode.

Why is "Painless indurated ulcers with persistent lymph node enlargement" not the answer?

Painless indurated ulcers describe syphilis, not herpes.

What concept does this question test?

It tests STI: recurrent versus primary genital herpes in Dermatology. Lesions are fewer, heal in about a week, are often preceded by itching or tingling, and systemic features are absent.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study STI: recurrent versus primary genital herpes?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.