STI: mode of delivery with genital warts: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · STI: mode of delivery with genital warts

Sample item

A woman at 38 weeks has extensive but non-obstructing genital warts. What is the appropriate mode of delivery?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Vaginal delivery, with caesarean reserved for obstruction or heavy bleeding

Genital warts alone are not an indication for caesarean section, because the risk of laryngeal papillomatosis in the infant is very low. Caesarean section is considered only when warts obstruct the birth canal or are likely to bleed heavily.

Option by option

  • A. Vaginal delivery, with caesarean reserved for obstruction or heavy bleeding (correct)

    Correct. Warts alone do not require caesarean delivery.

  • B. Caesarean section only if the infant is male

    The infant's sex has no bearing on the decision.

  • C. Elective caesarean section to prevent juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis

    Caesarean section does not reliably prevent neonatal papillomatosis and is not routinely advised.

  • D. Forceps delivery to shorten labour

    Forceps delivery does not address any risk related to the warts.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is A, Vaginal delivery, with caesarean reserved for obstruction or heavy bleeding. Genital warts alone are not an indication for caesarean section, because the risk of laryngeal papillomatosis in the infant is very low.

Why is "Caesarean section only if the infant is male" not the answer?

The infant's sex has no bearing on the decision.

Why is "Elective caesarean section to prevent juvenile laryngeal papillomatos…" not the answer?

Caesarean section does not reliably prevent neonatal papillomatosis and is not routinely advised.

Why is "Forceps delivery to shorten labour" not the answer?

Forceps delivery does not address any risk related to the warts.

What concept does this question test?

It tests STI: mode of delivery with genital warts in Dermatology. Caesarean section is considered only when warts obstruct the birth canal or are likely to bleed heavily.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study STI: mode of delivery with genital warts?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.