Neurology: hemiballismus lesion: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Medicine · Neurology: hemiballismus lesion

Sample item

A 70-year-old hypertensive man has sudden violent flinging movements of the right arm and leg. Where is the lesion most likely located?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Left subthalamic nucleus

Hemiballismus results from a lesion of the subthalamic nucleus, often a small lacunar infarct, and affects the contralateral side. Loss of the subthalamic drive disinhibits the thalamus and cortex. Dopamine blockers can control movements.

Option by option

  • A. Left subthalamic nucleus (correct)

    Correct. The contralateral subthalamic nucleus is the classic site.

  • B. Left cerebellar vermis

    Vermis lesions cause truncal ataxia.

  • C. Right subthalamic nucleus

    A right-sided lesion would cause left-sided movements.

  • D. Left caudate nucleus

    Caudate lesions cause chorea rather than violent flinging movements.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Medicine questions

Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is A, Left subthalamic nucleus. Hemiballismus results from a lesion of the subthalamic nucleus, often a small lacunar infarct, and affects the contralateral side.

Why is "Left cerebellar vermis" not the answer?

Vermis lesions cause truncal ataxia.

Why is "Right subthalamic nucleus" not the answer?

A right-sided lesion would cause left-sided movements.

Why is "Left caudate nucleus" not the answer?

Caudate lesions cause chorea rather than violent flinging movements.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neurology: hemiballismus lesion in General Medicine. Loss of the subthalamic drive disinhibits the thalamus and cortex. Dopamine blockers can control movements.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neurology: hemiballismus lesion?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.