Neurology: glioblastoma histology: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Medicine · Neurology: glioblastoma histology

Sample item

A 60-year-old man has six weeks of headache and personality change. MRI shows a ring-enhancing frontal mass with central necrosis crossing the corpus callosum, and biopsy shows pseudopalisading necrosis with microvascular proliferation. What is the diagnosis?

AMeningiomaBGlioblastomaCBrain abscessDPrimary CNS lymphoma

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Glioblastoma

Glioblastoma, the commonest primary malignant brain tumour in adults, appears as a ring-enhancing mass with a necrotic core, often spreading across the corpus callosum as a butterfly lesion. Pseudopalisading necrosis and vascular proliferation are histological hallmarks.

Option by option

A. Meningioma
Meningioma is extra-axial with a dural tail and psammoma bodies.
B. Glioblastoma (correct)
Correct. Necrosis with pseudopalisading and vascular proliferation defines this tumour.
C. Brain abscess
An abscess shows a thin smooth enhancing wall with restricted diffusion and an infective picture.
D. Primary CNS lymphoma
Primary CNS lymphoma typically shows homogeneous enhancement in periventricular regions.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is B, Glioblastoma. Glioblastoma, the commonest primary malignant brain tumour in adults, appears as a ring-enhancing mass with a necrotic core, often spreading across the corpus callosum as a butterfly lesion.

Why is "Meningioma" not the answer?

Meningioma is extra-axial with a dural tail and psammoma bodies.

Why is "Brain abscess" not the answer?

An abscess shows a thin smooth enhancing wall with restricted diffusion and an infective picture.

Why is "Primary CNS lymphoma" not the answer?

Primary CNS lymphoma typically shows homogeneous enhancement in periventricular regions.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neurology: glioblastoma histology in General Medicine. Pseudopalisading necrosis and vascular proliferation are histological hallmarks.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neurology: glioblastoma histology?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.