Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies: pathogenesis of amniotic fluid embolism: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies: pathogenesis of amniotic fluid embolism

Sample item

Which statement reflects the current understanding of amniotic fluid embolism?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. An anaphylactoid-type maternal reaction to fetal material in the circulation

Fetal antigens entering the maternal circulation are thought to trigger a systemic inflammatory, anaphylactoid response, producing hypoxia, cardiovascular collapse and consumptive coagulopathy. Simple mechanical obstruction does not explain the severity. Management is supportive, with correction of coagulopathy.

Option by option

  • A. Mechanical blockage of pulmonary arteries by a large volume of fluid

    Mechanical obstruction by fluid alone does not explain the systemic reaction.

  • B. An anaphylactoid-type maternal reaction to fetal material in the circulation (correct)

    Correct. An immune, anaphylactoid-like reaction explains the abrupt collapse and DIC.

  • C. Bacterial seeding of the lungs from chorioamnionitis

    Infection is not the mechanism, though sepsis can coexist.

  • D. Embolism of thrombus from pelvic veins

    Pelvic vein thrombus causes thromboembolism, a different condition.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, An anaphylactoid-type maternal reaction to fetal material in the circulation. Fetal antigens entering the maternal circulation are thought to trigger a systemic inflammatory, anaphylactoid response, producing hypoxia, cardiovascular collapse and consumptive coagulopathy.

Why is "Mechanical blockage of pulmonary arteries by a large volume of fluid" not the answer?

Mechanical obstruction by fluid alone does not explain the systemic reaction.

Why is "Bacterial seeding of the lungs from chorioamnionitis" not the answer?

Infection is not the mechanism, though sepsis can coexist.

Why is "Embolism of thrombus from pelvic veins" not the answer?

Pelvic vein thrombus causes thromboembolism, a different condition.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies: pathogenesis of amniotic fluid embolism in OBG. Simple mechanical obstruction does not explain the severity. Management is supportive, with correction of coagulopathy.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies: pathogenesis of amniotic fluid embolism?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.