Psychotic disorders: antipsychotic potency and receptor: practice question

A Psychiatry question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Psychiatry · Psychotic disorders: antipsychotic potency and receptor

Sample item

When the daily clinical doses of conventional antipsychotics are compared with their binding properties, the dose needed correlates most closely with the affinity of the drug for which receptor?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Dopamine D2 receptor

The clinical potency of conventional antipsychotics tracks their D2 receptor affinity, which was a major support for the dopamine hypothesis. Effects at muscarinic, histaminic and adrenergic receptors explain side effects such as dry mouth, sedation and hypotension instead.

Option by option

  • A. Muscarinic M1 receptor

    M1 blockade explains anticholinergic side effects, not antipsychotic potency.

  • B. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor

    Alpha-1 blockade explains orthostatic hypotension, not antipsychotic potency.

  • C. Dopamine D2 receptor (correct)

    Correct. Potency parallels D2 binding affinity, supporting the dopamine hypothesis.

  • D. Histamine H1 receptor

    H1 blockade explains sedation and weight gain, not antipsychotic potency.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Psychiatry question

What is the answer to this Psychiatry question?

The best answer is C, Dopamine D2 receptor. The clinical potency of conventional antipsychotics tracks their D2 receptor affinity, which was a major support for the dopamine hypothesis.

Why is "Muscarinic M1 receptor" not the answer?

M1 blockade explains anticholinergic side effects, not antipsychotic potency.

Why is "Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor" not the answer?

Alpha-1 blockade explains orthostatic hypotension, not antipsychotic potency.

Why is "Histamine H1 receptor" not the answer?

H1 blockade explains sedation and weight gain, not antipsychotic potency.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Psychotic disorders: antipsychotic potency and receptor in Psychiatry. Effects at muscarinic, histaminic and adrenergic receptors explain side effects such as dry mouth, sedation and hypotension instead.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Psychotic disorders: antipsychotic potency and receptor?

Learn each diagnosis by its core features and its first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other Psychiatry questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.