Musculoskeletal imaging: Segond fracture: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Musculoskeletal imaging: Segond fracture

Sample item

After a twisting knee injury, an AP radiograph shows a small elliptical avulsion fragment from the lateral tibial plateau. Which associated injury should be actively sought on MRI?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Anterior cruciate ligament tear

The Segond fracture is an avulsion at the lateral tibial plateau and is strongly associated with anterior cruciate ligament rupture and often a meniscal tear. It is a useful radiographic clue to internal derangement.

Option by option

  • A. Medial collateral ligament tear

    Medial collateral injury follows valgus stress and is not linked to a lateral tibial plateau avulsion.

  • B. Anterior cruciate ligament tear (correct)

    Correct. A Segond fracture is a marker of anterior cruciate ligament rupture, so MRI should look for it.

  • C. Posterior cruciate ligament tear

    Posterior cruciate injury is linked to posterior tibial sag or the 'reverse Segond' pattern, not the lateral plateau avulsion.

  • D. Patellar tendon rupture

    Patellar tendon rupture produces a high-riding patella and anterior knee findings.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is B, Anterior cruciate ligament tear. The Segond fracture is an avulsion at the lateral tibial plateau and is strongly associated with anterior cruciate ligament rupture and often a meniscal tear.

Why is "Medial collateral ligament tear" not the answer?

Medial collateral injury follows valgus stress and is not linked to a lateral tibial plateau avulsion.

Why is "Posterior cruciate ligament tear" not the answer?

Posterior cruciate injury is linked to posterior tibial sag or the 'reverse Segond' pattern, not the lateral plateau avulsion.

Why is "Patellar tendon rupture" not the answer?

Patellar tendon rupture produces a high-riding patella and anterior knee findings.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Musculoskeletal imaging: Segond fracture in Radiology. It is a useful radiographic clue to internal derangement.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Musculoskeletal imaging: Segond fracture?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.