Musculoskeletal imaging: Jones fracture: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Musculoskeletal imaging: Jones fracture

Sample item

A footballer inverts his foot and has lateral midfoot pain. A radiograph shows a transverse fracture at the junction of the metaphysis and diaphysis of the fifth metatarsal, distal to the tuberosity. What is the main concern with this fracture?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Delayed union or nonunion from a watershed blood supply

A Jones fracture lies in a watershed zone of the fifth metatarsal, so healing is slow and nonunion is common. This differs from the tuberosity avulsion fracture, which usually heals well.

Option by option

  • A. Compartment syndrome of the foot

    Compartment syndrome follows crush injuries or high-energy foot trauma, not this isolated fracture.

  • B. Delayed union or nonunion from a watershed blood supply (correct)

    Correct. The metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal has a poor blood supply, so delayed union and nonunion are typical.

  • C. Tarsometatarsal joint instability

    Tarsometatarsal instability is a Lisfranc injury, with widening between the first and second metatarsal bases.

  • D. Osteonecrosis of the metatarsal head

    Osteonecrosis of a metatarsal head is Freiberg disease and does not follow this injury.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is B, Delayed union or nonunion from a watershed blood supply. A Jones fracture lies in a watershed zone of the fifth metatarsal, so healing is slow and nonunion is common.

Why is "Compartment syndrome of the foot" not the answer?

Compartment syndrome follows crush injuries or high-energy foot trauma, not this isolated fracture.

Why is "Tarsometatarsal joint instability" not the answer?

Tarsometatarsal instability is a Lisfranc injury, with widening between the first and second metatarsal bases.

Why is "Osteonecrosis of the metatarsal head" not the answer?

Osteonecrosis of a metatarsal head is Freiberg disease and does not follow this injury.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Musculoskeletal imaging: Jones fracture in Radiology. This differs from the tuberosity avulsion fracture, which usually heals well.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Musculoskeletal imaging: Jones fracture?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.