Musculoskeletal imaging: Scheuermann disease: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Musculoskeletal imaging: Scheuermann disease

Sample item

A 15-year-old boy has a rigid thoracic kyphosis. A lateral radiograph shows anterior wedging of at least three consecutive vertebrae by 5 degrees or more, with irregular endplates and multiple Schmorl nodes. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Scheuermann disease

Scheuermann disease is a juvenile osteochondrosis of the vertebral endplates with wedging of three or more adjacent vertebrae, endplate irregularity and Schmorl nodes. It differs from postural kyphosis, which is flexible and has no vertebral changes.

Option by option

  • A. Postural kyphosis

    Postural kyphosis is flexible and shows no vertebral wedging on radiographs.

  • B. Ankylosing spondylitis

    Ankylosing spondylitis causes sacroiliitis and syndesmophytes in young adults, not endplate wedging in adolescents.

  • C. Tuberculous spondylitis

    Tuberculous spondylitis destroys vertebral bodies and discs with paravertebral abscess.

  • D. Scheuermann disease (correct)

    Correct. Wedging of three or more adjacent vertebrae with Schmorl nodes defines Scheuermann disease.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Radiology questions

Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is D, Scheuermann disease. Scheuermann disease is a juvenile osteochondrosis of the vertebral endplates with wedging of three or more adjacent vertebrae, endplate irregularity and Schmorl nodes.

Why is "Postural kyphosis" not the answer?

Postural kyphosis is flexible and shows no vertebral wedging on radiographs.

Why is "Ankylosing spondylitis" not the answer?

Ankylosing spondylitis causes sacroiliitis and syndesmophytes in young adults, not endplate wedging in adolescents.

Why is "Tuberculous spondylitis" not the answer?

Tuberculous spondylitis destroys vertebral bodies and discs with paravertebral abscess.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Musculoskeletal imaging: Scheuermann disease in Radiology. It differs from postural kyphosis, which is flexible and has no vertebral changes.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Musculoskeletal imaging: Scheuermann disease?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.