STI: lymphogranuloma venereum: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · STI: lymphogranuloma venereum

Sample item

A man has tender unilateral inguinal lymph nodes separated by the inguinal ligament, forming a groove, several weeks after a painless transient genital papule. Which treatment is recommended?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 21 days

LGV is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1 to L3 and shows the groove sign of Greenhouse. A 3-week course of doxycycline is used, and buboes may need aspiration.

Option by option

  • A. Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 21 days (correct)

    Correct. Doxycycline for 21 days is the first-line therapy.

  • B. Benzathine penicillin single dose

    Penicillin is used for syphilis.

  • C. Azithromycin 1 g single dose

    Single dose azithromycin is used for uncomplicated chlamydia and chancroid.

  • D. Acyclovir for 7 days

    Acyclovir is used for herpes.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is A, Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 21 days. LGV is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1 to L3 and shows the groove sign of Greenhouse.

Why is "Benzathine penicillin single dose" not the answer?

Penicillin is used for syphilis.

Why is "Azithromycin 1 g single dose" not the answer?

Single dose azithromycin is used for uncomplicated chlamydia and chancroid.

Why is "Acyclovir for 7 days" not the answer?

Acyclovir is used for herpes.

What concept does this question test?

It tests STI: lymphogranuloma venereum in Dermatology. A 3-week course of doxycycline is used, and buboes may need aspiration.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study STI: lymphogranuloma venereum?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.