Gestational trophoblastic disease: follow-up: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

OBG · Gestational trophoblastic disease: follow-up

Sample item

After evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole, what is the standard follow-up?

ASingle hCG at 6 monthsBPelvic MRI every monthCWeekly serum hCG until negative for three consecutive weeks, then monthly for 6 months, with effective contraceptionDNo follow-up if histology is benign

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Weekly serum hCG until negative for three consecutive weeks, then monthly for 6 months, with effective contraception

Serial hCG is monitored weekly until undetectable on three consecutive occasions, followed by monthly estimation for 6 months. Reliable contraception (not an IUCD until hCG normalises) is advised so that a rising hCG is not confused with a new pregnancy.

Option by option

A. Single hCG at 6 months
A single late hCG would miss progression.
B. Pelvic MRI every month
Routine MRI is not required.
C. Weekly serum hCG until negative for three consecutive weeks, then monthly for 6 months, with effective contraception (correct)
Correct. This protocol detects persistent trophoblastic disease early.
D. No follow-up if histology is benign
Histology does not exclude persistent disease; follow-up is mandatory.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Weekly serum hCG until negative for three consecutive weeks, then monthly for 6 months, with effective contraception. Serial hCG is monitored weekly until undetectable on three consecutive occasions, followed by monthly estimation for 6 months.

Why is "Single hCG at 6 months" not the answer?

A single late hCG would miss progression.

Why is "Pelvic MRI every month" not the answer?

Routine MRI is not required.

Why is "No follow-up if histology is benign" not the answer?

Histology does not exclude persistent disease; follow-up is mandatory.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gestational trophoblastic disease: follow-up in OBG. Reliable contraception (not an IUCD until hCG normalises) is advised so that a rising hCG is not confused with a new pregnancy.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gestational trophoblastic disease: follow-up?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.