Gynaecological endocrinology: premature ovarian insufficiency: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological endocrinology: premature ovarian insufficiency

Sample item

A 32-year-old woman has 8 months of amenorrhoea, hot flushes and two FSH measurements of 55 IU/L a month apart. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Premature ovarian insufficiency

POI is cessation of ovarian function before 40 years with raised FSH (above 25 to 40 IU/L) and low oestradiol. Causes include genetic (fragile X premutation, Turner), autoimmune, chemotherapy and idiopathic. Hormone replacement is advised until about 50 years for bone and cardiovascular protection.

Option by option

  • A. Asherman syndrome

    Asherman syndrome has normal FSH.

  • B. Hyperprolactinaemia

    Hyperprolactinaemia causes low gonadotrophins.

  • C. Premature ovarian insufficiency (correct)

    Correct. High FSH with oestrogen deficiency before 40 years defines POI.

  • D. PCOS

    PCOS has normal or low FSH.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Premature ovarian insufficiency. POI is cessation of ovarian function before 40 years with raised FSH (above 25 to 40 IU/L) and low oestradiol.

Why is "Asherman syndrome" not the answer?

Asherman syndrome has normal FSH.

Why is "Hyperprolactinaemia" not the answer?

Hyperprolactinaemia causes low gonadotrophins.

Why is "PCOS" not the answer?

PCOS has normal or low FSH.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological endocrinology: premature ovarian insufficiency in OBG. Causes include genetic (fragile X premutation, Turner), autoimmune, chemotherapy and idiopathic. Hormone replacement is advised until about 50 years for bone and cardiovascular protection.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological endocrinology: premature ovarian insufficiency?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.