Gynaecological endocrinology: Asherman syndrome: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological endocrinology: Asherman syndrome

Sample item

A woman develops hypomenorrhoea and secondary amenorrhoea after vigorous curettage for retained products. Her pregnancy test and hormone levels are normal. What is the best test and treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Hysteroscopy with adhesiolysis

Intrauterine adhesions (Asherman syndrome) block the cavity after trauma to the basal endometrium. Hysteroscopy confirms and treats by division of adhesions, followed by oestrogen therapy and a temporary intrauterine balloon or device. Hormones are normal because the ovaries are unaffected.

Option by option

  • A. Dopamine agonist

    Dopamine agonists are for hyperprolactinaemia.

  • B. Clomiphene citrate

    Clomiphene is for anovulation.

  • C. Hysterectomy

    Hysterectomy is not indicated.

  • D. Hysteroscopy with adhesiolysis (correct)

    Correct. Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis is diagnostic and therapeutic.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is D, Hysteroscopy with adhesiolysis. Intrauterine adhesions (Asherman syndrome) block the cavity after trauma to the basal endometrium.

Why is "Dopamine agonist" not the answer?

Dopamine agonists are for hyperprolactinaemia.

Why is "Clomiphene citrate" not the answer?

Clomiphene is for anovulation.

Why is "Hysterectomy" not the answer?

Hysterectomy is not indicated.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological endocrinology: Asherman syndrome in OBG. Hysteroscopy confirms and treats by division of adhesions, followed by oestrogen therapy and a temporary intrauterine balloon or device. Hormones are normal because the ovaries are unaffected.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological endocrinology: Asherman syndrome?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.