Gynaecological oncology: dysgerminoma: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological oncology: dysgerminoma

Sample item

A 20-year-old woman has a solid ovarian mass with raised LDH and normal AFP and beta hCG. Histology shows large cells with clear cytoplasm and lymphocytic infiltration. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Dysgerminoma

Dysgerminoma is the ovarian counterpart of testicular seminoma, is radiosensitive and has an excellent prognosis. LDH is the marker (and sometimes placental alkaline phosphatase). Fertility-sparing unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with chemotherapy (BEP) is used.

Option by option

  • A. Granulosa cell tumour

    Granulosa cell tumours secrete oestrogen and inhibin.

  • B. Yolk sac tumour

    Yolk sac tumours secrete AFP.

  • C. Dysgerminoma (correct)

    Correct. This is the classic description.

  • D. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

    Mucinous tumours are of epithelial origin and occur in older women.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Dysgerminoma. Dysgerminoma is the ovarian counterpart of testicular seminoma, is radiosensitive and has an excellent prognosis.

Why is "Granulosa cell tumour" not the answer?

Granulosa cell tumours secrete oestrogen and inhibin.

Why is "Yolk sac tumour" not the answer?

Yolk sac tumours secrete AFP.

Why is "Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma" not the answer?

Mucinous tumours are of epithelial origin and occur in older women.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological oncology: dysgerminoma in OBG. LDH is the marker (and sometimes placental alkaline phosphatase). Fertility-sparing unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with chemotherapy (BEP) is used.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological oncology: dysgerminoma?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.