Gynaecological oncology: BRCA mutation: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological oncology: BRCA mutation

Sample item

A 40-year-old woman with a BRCA1 mutation has completed her family. What is the recommended risk-reducing strategy for ovarian cancer?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy at about 35 to 40 years

Risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy after completion of childbearing reduces ovarian cancer risk by about 80 to 90 per cent and breast cancer risk as well. Screening for ovarian cancer is ineffective. High-grade serous cancer often arises from the fallopian tube fimbria.

Option by option

  • A. Hysterectomy alone

    Hysterectomy alone leaves the ovaries and tubes.

  • B. Annual CA-125 and transvaginal ultrasound only

    Screening has not been shown to reduce mortality.

  • C. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy at about 35 to 40 years (correct)

    Correct. Surgery is the effective risk-reducing option.

  • D. Oral iron

    Oral iron is irrelevant.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy at about 35 to 40 years. Risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy after completion of childbearing reduces ovarian cancer risk by about 80 to 90 per cent and breast cancer risk as well.

Why is "Hysterectomy alone" not the answer?

Hysterectomy alone leaves the ovaries and tubes.

Why is "Annual CA-125 and transvaginal ultrasound only" not the answer?

Screening has not been shown to reduce mortality.

Why is "Oral iron" not the answer?

Oral iron is irrelevant.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological oncology: BRCA mutation in OBG. Screening for ovarian cancer is ineffective. High-grade serous cancer often arises from the fallopian tube fimbria.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological oncology: BRCA mutation?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.