Benign gynaecology: fibroid degeneration: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

OBG · Benign gynaecology: fibroid degeneration

Sample item

A woman at 16 weeks has fever, severe localised abdominal pain over a known fibroid and mild leucocytosis. What is the likely diagnosis and management?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Red (carneous) degeneration; conservative with analgesia

Red degeneration occurs in pregnancy due to haemorrhagic infarction of the fibroid and is managed conservatively with rest, hydration and analgesia. The most common degeneration overall is hyaline. Myomectomy in pregnancy is avoided.

Option by option

  • A. Red (carneous) degeneration; conservative with analgesia (correct)

    Correct. Painful fibroid with low-grade fever in pregnancy is red degeneration.

  • B. Placental abruption; immediate surgery

    Abruption presents with bleeding and uterine tenderness, typically later.

  • C. Appendicitis; appendectomy

    The pain is localised over the known fibroid.

  • D. Ovarian torsion; laparoscopy

    Torsion would give an adnexal mass.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is A, Red (carneous) degeneration; conservative with analgesia. Red degeneration occurs in pregnancy due to haemorrhagic infarction of the fibroid and is managed conservatively with rest, hydration and analgesia.

Why is "Placental abruption; immediate surgery" not the answer?

Abruption presents with bleeding and uterine tenderness, typically later.

Why is "Appendicitis; appendectomy" not the answer?

The pain is localised over the known fibroid.

Why is "Ovarian torsion; laparoscopy" not the answer?

Torsion would give an adnexal mass.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Benign gynaecology: fibroid degeneration in OBG. The most common degeneration overall is hyaline. Myomectomy in pregnancy is avoided.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Benign gynaecology: fibroid degeneration?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.