Neoplasia: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pathology · Neoplasia

Sample item

A 52-year-old man with weight loss has abrupt onset of velvety, hyperpigmented skin thickening in the axillae and neck, with thickened palms. Which malignancy should be sought?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Gastric adenocarcinoma

Sudden, extensive acanthosis nigricans in an adult is a paraneoplastic sign, most often of gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma, especially stomach. Tumour-derived growth factors act on keratinocytes.

Option by option

  • A. Gastric adenocarcinoma (correct)

    Correct. Paraneoplastic acanthosis nigricans most often accompanies gastric adenocarcinoma.

  • B. Basal cell carcinoma

    Basal cell carcinoma is a local skin tumour with no paraneoplastic effect.

  • C. Osteosarcoma

    Osteosarcoma presents with bone pain and a mass, and is not a cause of acanthosis nigricans.

  • D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

    Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia has marrow and blood features and is not linked to this skin change.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Pathology questions

Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is A, Gastric adenocarcinoma. Sudden, extensive acanthosis nigricans in an adult is a paraneoplastic sign, most often of gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma, especially stomach.

Why is "Basal cell carcinoma" not the answer?

Basal cell carcinoma is a local skin tumour with no paraneoplastic effect.

Why is "Osteosarcoma" not the answer?

Osteosarcoma presents with bone pain and a mass, and is not a cause of acanthosis nigricans.

Why is "Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia" not the answer?

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia has marrow and blood features and is not linked to this skin change.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neoplasia in Pathology. Tumour-derived growth factors act on keratinocytes.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neoplasia?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.