Try it
Orthopaedics · Spine: inflammatory spondyloarthropathy
Sample itemA 22-year-old man has morning back stiffness improving with exercise, and radiographs show bilateral sacroiliitis. Which is the first-line drug treatment?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
B. NSAIDs
Ankylosing spondylitis responds symptomatically to NSAIDs, together with exercise. TNF inhibitors are used if NSAIDs fail, and methotrexate does little for axial disease.
Option by option
A. Oral prednisolone long term
Long-term steroids carry harm and do not alter the course of axial disease.
B. NSAIDs (correct)
Correct. NSAIDs are first-line for ankylosing spondylitis.
C. Methotrexate
Methotrexate is not effective for the axial disease.
D. Opioids
Opioids do not treat the inflammation and risk dependence.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
More Orthopaedics questions
- Upper limb fracturesWhich complication is characteristic of a fracture through the waist of the scaphoid?
- Fractures in childrenA child with a displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus develops a painful, pale…
- Bone tumoursA teenager has knee pain and a radiograph around the distal femur showing a sunburst per…
- HipA positive Trendelenburg sign is due to weakness of the gluteus medius and minimus. Whic…