Musculoskeletal imaging: displaced femoral neck fracture: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Musculoskeletal imaging: displaced femoral neck fracture

Sample item

A 75-year-old woman falls and has a subcapital hip fracture with complete displacement of the fragments. Why is arthroplasty often preferred to internal fixation?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. High risk of avascular necrosis from retinacular vessel disruption

A displaced subcapital fracture tears the retinacular vessels from the medial circumflex femoral artery, which supply the femoral head, so avascular necrosis and non-union are common after fixation. Replacement avoids these problems in older patients.

Option by option

  • A. High risk of sciatic nerve palsy

    Sciatic nerve palsy is associated with posterior hip dislocation.

  • B. High risk of fat embolism

    Fat embolism is associated with long-bone shaft fractures.

  • C. High risk of avascular necrosis from retinacular vessel disruption (correct)

    Correct. The femoral head blood supply is disrupted and avascular necrosis follows.

  • D. High risk of heterotopic ossification

    Heterotopic ossification follows hip surgery but does not decide the implant choice.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is C, High risk of avascular necrosis from retinacular vessel disruption. A displaced subcapital fracture tears the retinacular vessels from the medial circumflex femoral artery, which supply the femoral head, so avascular necrosis and non-union are common after fixation.

Why is "High risk of sciatic nerve palsy" not the answer?

Sciatic nerve palsy is associated with posterior hip dislocation.

Why is "High risk of fat embolism" not the answer?

Fat embolism is associated with long-bone shaft fractures.

Why is "High risk of heterotopic ossification" not the answer?

Heterotopic ossification follows hip surgery but does not decide the implant choice.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Musculoskeletal imaging: displaced femoral neck fracture in Radiology. Replacement avoids these problems in older patients.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Musculoskeletal imaging: displaced femoral neck fracture?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.