Spine: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Spine

Sample item

A man with a large lumbar disc prolapse develops bilateral leg weakness, saddle anaesthesia and urinary retention. What is the most appropriate management?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Urgent MRI of the lumbosacral spine and surgical decompression

Saddle anaesthesia, bladder dysfunction and bilateral leg symptoms indicate cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency. Urgent MRI confirms compression, and early decompression gives the best chance of recovering bladder, bowel and sexual function. Delay risks permanent deficit.

Option by option

  • A. Nerve conduction studies in two weeks

    Waiting two weeks for electrodiagnostic tests leaves the compression untreated.

  • B. Urgent MRI of the lumbosacral spine and surgical decompression (correct)

    Correct. Rapid imaging and decompression prevent permanent sphincter and motor loss.

  • C. Bed rest and NSAIDs with outpatient review

    Conservative care is inappropriate for a compressive emergency.

  • D. Epidural steroid injection as an outpatient

    An injection does not relieve compression and delays surgery.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Urgent MRI of the lumbosacral spine and surgical decompression. Saddle anaesthesia, bladder dysfunction and bilateral leg symptoms indicate cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency.

Why is "Nerve conduction studies in two weeks" not the answer?

Waiting two weeks for electrodiagnostic tests leaves the compression untreated.

Why is "Bed rest and NSAIDs with outpatient review" not the answer?

Conservative care is inappropriate for a compressive emergency.

Why is "Epidural steroid injection as an outpatient" not the answer?

An injection does not relieve compression and delays surgery.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Spine in Orthopaedics. Urgent MRI confirms compression, and early decompression gives the best chance of recovering bladder, bowel and sexual function. Delay risks permanent deficit.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Spine?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.