Knee ligament injuries: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Knee ligament injuries

Sample item

A footballer twists his knee while pivoting, feels a pop and develops a large swelling within hours. The Lachman test shows increased anterior translation with a soft end point. Which structure is torn?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Anterior cruciate ligament

A non-contact pivoting injury with an audible pop and rapid haemarthrosis is classic for anterior cruciate ligament rupture. The Lachman test, with the knee at about 20 to 30 degrees of flexion, is the most sensitive clinical test. A posterior cruciate tear typically follows a blow to the front of the tibia and shows posterior sag.

Option by option

  • A. Anterior cruciate ligament (correct)

    Correct. Anterior translation with a soft end point indicates ACL rupture.

  • B. Lateral meniscus only

    An isolated meniscal tear causes locking and joint line tenderness without anterior instability.

  • C. Medial collateral ligament

    An isolated MCL injury shows laxity to valgus stress, not anterior translation.

  • D. Posterior cruciate ligament

    A PCL injury produces posterior sag and a positive posterior drawer.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is A, Anterior cruciate ligament. A non-contact pivoting injury with an audible pop and rapid haemarthrosis is classic for anterior cruciate ligament rupture.

Why is "Lateral meniscus only" not the answer?

An isolated meniscal tear causes locking and joint line tenderness without anterior instability.

Why is "Medial collateral ligament" not the answer?

An isolated MCL injury shows laxity to valgus stress, not anterior translation.

Why is "Posterior cruciate ligament" not the answer?

A PCL injury produces posterior sag and a positive posterior drawer.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Knee ligament injuries in Orthopaedics. The Lachman test, with the knee at about 20 to 30 degrees of flexion, is the most sensitive clinical test. A posterior cruciate tear typically follows a blow to the front of the tibia and shows posterior sag.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Knee ligament injuries?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.