Vascular disorders: livedoid vasculopathy: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Vascular disorders: livedoid vasculopathy

Sample item

A 30-year-old woman has recurrent painful ulcers on the ankles each summer that heal leaving porcelain-white stellate scars with surrounding telangiectasia. Biopsy shows fibrin thrombi in dermal vessels without a vasculitic infiltrate. What is the best treatment approach?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Antiplatelet or anticoagulant therapy

Livedoid vasculopathy is a thrombo-occlusive disorder with painful ulcers that heal as atrophie blanche. Treatment addresses thrombosis with antiplatelets or anticoagulants such as rivaroxaban, and investigation for thrombophilia is advised. Immunosuppression is not the mainstay because there is no true vasculitis.

Option by option

  • A. Oral terbinafine

    Terbinafine treats dermatophytosis.

  • B. High-dose systemic antibiotics

    Antibiotics do not treat a thrombotic vasculopathy.

  • C. Antiplatelet or anticoagulant therapy (correct)

    Correct. Antithrombotic therapy targets the pathology.

  • D. Cyclophosphamide

    Cyclophosphamide is for true vasculitis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is C, Antiplatelet or anticoagulant therapy. Livedoid vasculopathy is a thrombo-occlusive disorder with painful ulcers that heal as atrophie blanche.

Why is "Oral terbinafine" not the answer?

Terbinafine treats dermatophytosis.

Why is "High-dose systemic antibiotics" not the answer?

Antibiotics do not treat a thrombotic vasculopathy.

Why is "Cyclophosphamide" not the answer?

Cyclophosphamide is for true vasculitis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Vascular disorders: livedoid vasculopathy in Dermatology. Treatment addresses thrombosis with antiplatelets or anticoagulants such as rivaroxaban, and investigation for thrombophilia is advised. Immunosuppression is not the mainstay because there is no true vasculitis.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Vascular disorders: livedoid vasculopathy?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.