Neuroimaging: neuromyelitis optica: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Neuroimaging: neuromyelitis optica

Sample item

A young woman has visual loss in one eye and then paraplegia. MRI of the spine shows a T2 hyperintense lesion spanning more than three vertebral segments centrally in the cord, and aquaporin-4 antibodies are positive. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder

NMOSD causes longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis of three or more segments with optic neuritis, while MS plaques span fewer than two segments and lie peripherally. Antibody testing confirms it and treatment differs from MS.

Option by option

  • A. Syringomyelia

    Syringomyelia is a cavity with a dissociated sensory loss.

  • B. Multiple sclerosis

    MS lesions are short and eccentric.

  • C. Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (correct)

    Correct. A long-segment central cord lesion with optic neuritis fits NMOSD.

  • D. Spinal cord infarct

    Cord infarct has an abrupt onset with anterior horn owl eyes pattern.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is C, Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder. NMOSD causes longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis of three or more segments with optic neuritis, while MS plaques span fewer than two segments and lie peripherally.

Why is "Syringomyelia" not the answer?

Syringomyelia is a cavity with a dissociated sensory loss.

Why is "Multiple sclerosis" not the answer?

MS lesions are short and eccentric.

Why is "Spinal cord infarct" not the answer?

Cord infarct has an abrupt onset with anterior horn owl eyes pattern.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuroimaging: neuromyelitis optica in Radiology. Antibody testing confirms it and treatment differs from MS.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuroimaging: neuromyelitis optica?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.