Hematology: disseminated intravascular coagulation: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Medicine · Hematology: disseminated intravascular coagulation

Sample item

A septic patient develops diffuse bleeding from venepuncture sites, thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and aPTT, high D-dimer, and low fibrinogen. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

DIC is systemic activation of coagulation causing consumption of platelets and clotting factors, thrombosis, and bleeding. Management centers on treating the underlying cause and supporting hemostasis when indicated.

Option by option

  • A. Vitamin B12 deficiency

    B12 deficiency causes macrocytic anemia, not consumptive coagulopathy.

  • B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (correct)

    Correct. Consumption coagulopathy explains the entire laboratory pattern.

  • C. Immune thrombocytopenia

    ITP causes isolated thrombocytopenia with normal coagulation tests.

  • D. Hemophilia A

    Hemophilia A prolongs aPTT but does not cause low fibrinogen and high D-dimer.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is B, Disseminated intravascular coagulation. DIC is systemic activation of coagulation causing consumption of platelets and clotting factors, thrombosis, and bleeding.

Why is "Vitamin B12 deficiency" not the answer?

B12 deficiency causes macrocytic anemia, not consumptive coagulopathy.

Why is "Immune thrombocytopenia" not the answer?

ITP causes isolated thrombocytopenia with normal coagulation tests.

Why is "Hemophilia A" not the answer?

Hemophilia A prolongs aPTT but does not cause low fibrinogen and high D-dimer.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Hematology: disseminated intravascular coagulation in General Medicine. Management centers on treating the underlying cause and supporting hemostasis when indicated.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Hematology: disseminated intravascular coagulation?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.