Vascular pathology: aneurysm: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Pathology · Vascular pathology: aneurysm

Sample item

What mechanism is most important in formation of an abdominal aortic aneurysm due to atherosclerosis?

AVenous valve incompetenceBAcute neutrophilic inflammation of the intima onlyCDegradation and weakening of the aortic media by extracellular-matrix remodelingDCongenital absence of all smooth muscle

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Degradation and weakening of the aortic media by extracellular-matrix remodeling

Atherosclerotic abdominal aneurysms involve chronic inflammation and matrix metalloproteinase activity that weaken the aortic media. Expansion raises risk of rupture.

Option by option

A. Venous valve incompetence
Venous valve failure causes varicose veins.
B. Acute neutrophilic inflammation of the intima only
Acute neutrophilic inflammation alone does not explain chronic aneurysm formation.
C. Degradation and weakening of the aortic media by extracellular-matrix remodeling (correct)
Correct. Media weakening through matrix degradation permits aneurysmal dilatation.
D. Congenital absence of all smooth muscle
Aneurysms are not due to absence of all smooth muscle.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is C, Degradation and weakening of the aortic media by extracellular-matrix remodeling. Atherosclerotic abdominal aneurysms involve chronic inflammation and matrix metalloproteinase activity that weaken the aortic media.

Why is "Venous valve incompetence" not the answer?

Venous valve failure causes varicose veins.

Why is "Acute neutrophilic inflammation of the intima only" not the answer?

Acute neutrophilic inflammation alone does not explain chronic aneurysm formation.

Why is "Congenital absence of all smooth muscle" not the answer?

Aneurysms are not due to absence of all smooth muscle.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Vascular pathology: aneurysm in Pathology. Expansion raises risk of rupture.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Vascular pathology: aneurysm?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.