Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: candidal balanitis in diabetes: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: candidal balanitis in diabetes

Sample item

A man with type 2 diabetes recently started on an SGLT2 inhibitor develops an itchy red glans with white patches and satellite pustules. What is the underlying mechanism?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Glycosuria favouring Candida overgrowth

SGLT2 inhibitors cause glucose to be excreted in the urine, providing a substrate for Candida in the moist subpreputial area. Genital candidiasis is a recognised adverse effect, and management is with topical antifungals and genital hygiene.

Option by option

  • A. Lichen sclerosus from low oestrogen

    Lichen sclerosus produces white atrophic plaques and phimosis, without pustules.

  • B. Drug-induced fixed eruption

    A fixed drug eruption gives a single well-defined dusky plaque, not satellite pustules.

  • C. Glycosuria favouring Candida overgrowth (correct)

    Correct. Glycosuria feeds Candida under the foreskin, producing balanitis with satellite pustules.

  • D. Reactivation of herpes simplex

    Herpes gives grouped vesicles and erosions, not diffuse erythema with satellite pustules.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is C, Glycosuria favouring Candida overgrowth. SGLT2 inhibitors cause glucose to be excreted in the urine, providing a substrate for Candida in the moist subpreputial area.

Why is "Lichen sclerosus from low oestrogen" not the answer?

Lichen sclerosus produces white atrophic plaques and phimosis, without pustules.

Why is "Drug-induced fixed eruption" not the answer?

A fixed drug eruption gives a single well-defined dusky plaque, not satellite pustules.

Why is "Reactivation of herpes simplex" not the answer?

Herpes gives grouped vesicles and erosions, not diffuse erythema with satellite pustules.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: candidal balanitis in diabetes in Dermatology. Genital candidiasis is a recognised adverse effect, and management is with topical antifungals and genital hygiene.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: candidal balanitis in diabetes?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.