STI: neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Dermatology · STI: neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis

Sample item

A 10-day-old neonate has mucopurulent conjunctivitis. Gram stain shows no organisms, and Giemsa stain shows basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions in epithelial cells. Which treatment is needed?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. A systemic macrolide such as oral erythromycin

Chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis starts at 5 to 14 days and is treated with systemic macrolides, since topical therapy does not clear the nasopharyngeal infection and does not prevent chlamydial pneumonia. Gonococcal ophthalmia begins earlier and shows intracellular diplococci.

Option by option

  • A. Intravenous acyclovir

    Acyclovir treats herpes simplex keratoconjunctivitis, which has vesicles and a different smear.

  • B. Topical tetracycline ointment alone

    Topical therapy alone does not eradicate nasopharyngeal carriage.

  • C. A systemic macrolide such as oral erythromycin (correct)

    Correct. Systemic macrolide therapy treats chlamydial conjunctivitis and prevents pneumonia.

  • D. A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone

    Ceftriaxone treats gonococcal ophthalmia, which would show Gram-negative diplococci.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is C, A systemic macrolide such as oral erythromycin. Chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis starts at 5 to 14 days and is treated with systemic macrolides, since topical therapy does not clear the nasopharyngeal infection and does not prevent chlamydial pneumonia.

Why is "Intravenous acyclovir" not the answer?

Acyclovir treats herpes simplex keratoconjunctivitis, which has vesicles and a different smear.

Why is "Topical tetracycline ointment alone" not the answer?

Topical therapy alone does not eradicate nasopharyngeal carriage.

Why is "A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone" not the answer?

Ceftriaxone treats gonococcal ophthalmia, which would show Gram-negative diplococci.

What concept does this question test?

It tests STI: neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis in Dermatology. Gonococcal ophthalmia begins earlier and shows intracellular diplococci.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study STI: neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.