Hypertensive disorders: who should receive aspirin: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Hypertensive disorders: who should receive aspirin

Sample item

Which woman should be offered low-dose aspirin prophylaxis from early in pregnancy?

AA healthy multipara with a normal body mass indexBA healthy 27-year-old with a previous normal term deliveryCA woman who had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancyDA woman with one earlier first-trimester miscarriage only

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. A woman who had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy

Low-dose aspirin is advised for women at high risk, such as a previous pre-eclampsia, chronic hypertension, diabetes, renal disease or antiphospholipid syndrome. It is started in the first or early second trimester, as a normal low-risk pregnancy does not need it.

Option by option

A. A healthy multipara with a normal body mass index
A healthy multipara with normal weight has a low risk.
B. A healthy 27-year-old with a previous normal term delivery
A normal previous delivery carries no added risk of pre-eclampsia.
C. A woman who had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy (correct)
Correct. Previous pre-eclampsia is a recognised high-risk factor for recurrence.
D. A woman with one earlier first-trimester miscarriage only
A single early miscarriage is not an indication for aspirin prophylaxis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, A woman who had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy. Low-dose aspirin is advised for women at high risk, such as a previous pre-eclampsia, chronic hypertension, diabetes, renal disease or antiphospholipid syndrome.

Why is "A healthy multipara with a normal body mass index" not the answer?

A healthy multipara with normal weight has a low risk.

Why is "A healthy 27-year-old with a previous normal term delivery" not the answer?

A normal previous delivery carries no added risk of pre-eclampsia.

Why is "A woman with one earlier first-trimester miscarriage only" not the answer?

A single early miscarriage is not an indication for aspirin prophylaxis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Hypertensive disorders: who should receive aspirin in OBG. It is started in the first or early second trimester, as a normal low-risk pregnancy does not need it.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Hypertensive disorders: who should receive aspirin?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.