MSK imaging: osteoid osteoma: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · MSK imaging: osteoid osteoma

Sample item

A teenager has night pain relieved by aspirin. Radiograph shows cortical thickening with a small radiolucent nidus less than 1.5 cm. What is the diagnosis and best treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Osteoid osteoma, CT-guided radiofrequency ablation

Osteoid osteoma is a benign tumour with a nidus under 1.5 cm surrounded by reactive sclerosis, and pain is due to prostaglandins, relieved by NSAIDs. CT best shows the nidus. Radiofrequency ablation or surgical excision is curative.

Option by option

  • A. Brodie abscess, long-term antibiotics

    A Brodie abscess is infective and shows a serpiginous lucency.

  • B. Osteosarcoma, chemotherapy

    Osteosarcoma is aggressive and does not give this classic pain relief.

  • C. Osteoid osteoma, CT-guided radiofrequency ablation (correct)

    Correct. A small nidus with night pain relieved by aspirin is osteoid osteoma.

  • D. Stress fracture, immobilisation

    A stress fracture follows activity and has a linear fracture line.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Radiology questions

Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is C, Osteoid osteoma, CT-guided radiofrequency ablation. Osteoid osteoma is a benign tumour with a nidus under 1.

Why is "Brodie abscess, long-term antibiotics" not the answer?

A Brodie abscess is infective and shows a serpiginous lucency.

Why is "Osteosarcoma, chemotherapy" not the answer?

Osteosarcoma is aggressive and does not give this classic pain relief.

Why is "Stress fracture, immobilisation" not the answer?

A stress fracture follows activity and has a linear fracture line.

What concept does this question test?

It tests MSK imaging: osteoid osteoma in Radiology. 5 cm surrounded by reactive sclerosis, and pain is due to prostaglandins, relieved by NSAIDs. CT best shows the nidus. Radiofrequency ablation or surgical excision is curative.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study MSK imaging: osteoid osteoma?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.