Cardiology: Marfan syndrome: practice question

A General Medicine question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Medicine · Cardiology: Marfan syndrome

Sample item

A tall 20-year-old man has an arm span exceeding his height, upward lens subluxation and a dilated aortic root. What is the most important cause of death in this condition?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Aortic dissection or rupture

Marfan syndrome is caused by FBN1 mutations affecting fibrillin-1, leading to aortic root dilatation, dissection and aortic regurgitation. Regular echocardiographic surveillance, beta-blockers or losartan, and elective root surgery at a threshold diameter reduce risk. Lens subluxation is typically upward, unlike homocystinuria.

Option by option

  • A. Ventricular tachycardia from ischaemia

    Ischaemic ventricular tachycardia is not the typical mechanism.

  • B. Pulmonary embolism

    Pulmonary embolism is not a characteristic complication.

  • C. Aortic dissection or rupture (correct)

    Correct. Aortic root disease with dissection is the leading cause of death.

  • D. Mitral stenosis

    Mitral stenosis is not a feature; mitral valve prolapse may occur.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this General Medicine question

What is the answer to this General Medicine question?

The best answer is C, Aortic dissection or rupture. Marfan syndrome is caused by FBN1 mutations affecting fibrillin-1, leading to aortic root dilatation, dissection and aortic regurgitation.

Why is "Ventricular tachycardia from ischaemia" not the answer?

Ischaemic ventricular tachycardia is not the typical mechanism.

Why is "Pulmonary embolism" not the answer?

Pulmonary embolism is not a characteristic complication.

Why is "Mitral stenosis" not the answer?

Mitral stenosis is not a feature; mitral valve prolapse may occur.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Cardiology: Marfan syndrome in General Medicine. Regular echocardiographic surveillance, beta-blockers or losartan, and elective root surgery at a threshold diameter reduce risk. Lens subluxation is typically upward, unlike homocystinuria.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Cardiology: Marfan syndrome?

For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other General Medicine questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.