Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis

Sample item

An 11-year-old has had cough and fever for five days. He now has severe painful oral, ocular and genital erosions with only a few vesiculobullous skin lesions. He has taken no new drugs and the chest film shows a patchy infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis

Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis presents with prominent mucositis and sparse skin lesions after a respiratory prodrome, mostly in children and young adults. There is no culprit drug, so the diagnosis rests on the infection, supported by Mycoplasma serology or PCR.

Option by option

  • A. Hand, foot and mouth disease

    Hand, foot and mouth disease gives small oral ulcers and acral vesicles, not severe ocular and genital erosions.

  • B. Pemphigus vulgaris

    Pemphigus vulgaris is rare in an 11-year-old, evolves over weeks and does not follow a respiratory illness.

  • C. Drug-induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome

    Drug-induced SJS needs a culprit drug 1 to 3 weeks earlier and gives widespread targetoid lesions.

  • D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis (correct)

    Correct. Prominent mucositis with sparse skin lesions after pneumonitis suggests Mycoplasma-induced rash and mucositis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is D, Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis. Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis presents with prominent mucositis and sparse skin lesions after a respiratory prodrome, mostly in children and young adults.

Why is "Hand, foot and mouth disease" not the answer?

Hand, foot and mouth disease gives small oral ulcers and acral vesicles, not severe ocular and genital erosions.

Why is "Pemphigus vulgaris" not the answer?

Pemphigus vulgaris is rare in an 11-year-old, evolves over weeks and does not follow a respiratory illness.

Why is "Drug-induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome" not the answer?

Drug-induced SJS needs a culprit drug 1 to 3 weeks earlier and gives widespread targetoid lesions.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis in Dermatology. There is no culprit drug, so the diagnosis rests on the infection, supported by Mycoplasma serology or PCR.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: Mycoplasma pneumoniae-induced rash and mucositis?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.