Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: perianal streptococcal dermatitis: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: perianal streptococcal dermatitis

Sample item

A 5-year-old has sharply demarcated, bright red perianal erythema with pain on defecation and some blood-streaked stool. A swab grows a Gram-positive coccus in chains. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Oral penicillin or amoxicillin

Perianal streptococcal dermatitis is caused by group A beta-haemolytic streptococci and is treated with oral penicillin or amoxicillin, often with topical mupirocin. Recurrences occur if household carriers are not treated.

Option by option

  • A. Oral albendazole

    Albendazole treats threadworm, which causes nocturnal itch without a sharp red border and does not grow streptococci.

  • B. Oral penicillin or amoxicillin (correct)

    Correct. A group A streptococcal infection responds to oral penicillin or amoxicillin.

  • C. Topical hydrocortisone alone

    Hydrocortisone alone would not clear a bacterial infection.

  • D. Topical clotrimazole

    Clotrimazole treats candida or tinea, which would not give streptococcal chains on culture.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is B, Oral penicillin or amoxicillin. Perianal streptococcal dermatitis is caused by group A beta-haemolytic streptococci and is treated with oral penicillin or amoxicillin, often with topical mupirocin.

Why is "Oral albendazole" not the answer?

Albendazole treats threadworm, which causes nocturnal itch without a sharp red border and does not grow streptococci.

Why is "Topical hydrocortisone alone" not the answer?

Hydrocortisone alone would not clear a bacterial infection.

Why is "Topical clotrimazole" not the answer?

Clotrimazole treats candida or tinea, which would not give streptococcal chains on culture.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: perianal streptococcal dermatitis in Dermatology. Recurrences occur if household carriers are not treated.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: perianal streptococcal dermatitis?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.