Neuroimaging: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Neuroimaging: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

Sample item

A 12-year-old boy who had measles in infancy has progressive intellectual decline and myoclonic jerks. EEG shows periodic high-voltage complexes, and MRI shows asymmetric periventricular and subcortical white matter T2 hyperintensity. What is the diagnosis?

AAcute disseminated encephalomyelitisBWernicke encephalopathyCSubacute sclerosing panencephalitisDProgressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

SSPE is a delayed measles-virus encephalitis causing progressive dementia, myoclonus and periodic EEG complexes, with posterior-predominant white matter signal change on MRI. ADEM is monophasic after infection or vaccination, Wernicke affects the mamillary bodies and thalami, and PML affects immunosuppressed adults.

Option by option

A. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
ADEM is monophasic, appears soon after an infection and does not progress for years.
B. Wernicke encephalopathy
Wernicke encephalopathy is nutritional and involves medial thalami and mamillary bodies.
C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (correct)
Correct. Measles exposure, myoclonus, periodic EEG and white matter change indicate SSPE.
D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
PML occurs in immunosuppressed adults and is not tied to prior measles.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is C, Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. SSPE is a delayed measles-virus encephalitis causing progressive dementia, myoclonus and periodic EEG complexes, with posterior-predominant white matter signal change on MRI.

Why is "Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis" not the answer?

ADEM is monophasic, appears soon after an infection and does not progress for years.

Why is "Wernicke encephalopathy" not the answer?

Wernicke encephalopathy is nutritional and involves medial thalami and mamillary bodies.

Why is "Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy" not the answer?

PML occurs in immunosuppressed adults and is not tied to prior measles.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuroimaging: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis in Radiology. ADEM is monophasic after infection or vaccination, Wernicke affects the mamillary bodies and thalami, and PML affects immunosuppressed adults.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuroimaging: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.